A mod closed the question Why do some airlines have indemnity forms even though the ICAO rules state the airlines can recover the costs for removing inadmissible persons? as opinion-based. The accepted answer shows there is a non-opinion-based answer:

Because the passenger has a contract with the airline and is not obviously directly bound by an international agreement like the ICAO convention. Furthermore, the 'transportation costs' mentioned in the ICAO convention are usually just a tiny part of the actual costs incurred for the airline, which they will or may try to get back from the passenger (potentially depending on national interpretation of the wording).

The question had 3 old close votes before the accepted answer was posted 5 days ago, and no non-mod close votes afterward. However, a mod just closed the question using their mod priviledge. Why did a mod close this question as opinion-based?

A mod closed the question Why do some airlines have indemnity forms even though the ICAO rules state the airlines can recover the costs for removing inadmissible persons? as opinion-based. The accepted answer shows there is a non-opinion-based answer:

Because the passenger has a contract with the airline and is not obviously directly bound by an international agreement like the ICAO convention. Furthermore, the 'transportation costs' mentioned in the ICAO convention are usually just a tiny part of the actual costs incurred for the airline, which they will or may try to get back from the passenger (potentially depending on national interpretation of the wording).

The question had 3 old close votes before the accepted answer was posted 5 days ago. However, a mod just closed the question using their mod priviledge. Why did a mod close this question as opinion-based?

A mod closed the question Why do some airlines have indemnity forms even though the ICAO rules state the airlines can recover the costs for removing inadmissible persons? as opinion-based. The accepted answer shows there is a non-opinion-based answer:

Because the passenger has a contract with the airline and is not obviously directly bound by an international agreement like the ICAO convention. Furthermore, the 'transportation costs' mentioned in the ICAO convention are usually just a tiny part of the actual costs incurred for the airline, which they will or may try to get back from the passenger (potentially depending on national interpretation of the wording).

The question had 3 old close votes before the accepted answer was posted, but no non-mod close votes afterward. Why did a mod close this question as opinion-based?

A mod closed the question Why do some airlines have indemnity forms even though the ICAO rules state the airlines can recover the costs for removing inadmissible persons? as opinion-based. The accepted answer shows there is a non-opinion-based answer:

Because the passenger has a contract with the airline and is not obviously directly bound by an international agreement like the ICAO convention. Furthermore, the 'transportation costs' mentioned in the ICAO convention are usually just a tiny part of the actual costs incurred for the airline, which they will or may try to get back from the passenger (potentially depending on national interpretation of the wording).

The question had 3 old close votes before the accepted answer was posted 5 days ago, and no non-mod close votes afterward. However, a mod just closed the question using their mod priviledge. Why did a mod close this question as opinion-based?